Would L.P. Hartley’s line about the past being “a foreign

Would L.P. Hartley’s line about the past being “a foreign

World History from 1500 to the 20th CenturyWould L.P. Hartley’s line about the past being “a foreign country” work for someone living at the end of the period covered in the 1500s to the 20th century, say 1920, and contemplating the world in 1750? Are there any limits to this claim? In other words, are there ways in which the past of 1750 would not have seemed that strange to somebody living in 1920? Provide examples for the supporting arguments and emphasize on LP Hartley and his views using reasons from the past to answer the question.

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